I am sure that there are plenty of people here who are at home in the world of stocks and shares. Can you give me any comments on the following? I am wondering about preferred stock, in this case non-cumulative. Is is usual practice that there is no dividend payment for this?
Usually there is a dividend, but without any voting rights. Although there is no hard and fast rule for preferred stocks, so the formula you are mentioning is quite possible. Would this be with or without voting rights? And in which cases? Are you asking a theoretical question or is this something that exists?
